Interesting incident that led to Arsenal's opener. Chelsea player misplaces a clear pass to his goalkeeper and, it's going in the net for an OG, but the goalkeeper dives across and claws it off the line with his hand just in time.
Regardless, Arsenal eventually turn the rebound in for 0-1.
However, at no stage did Marriner appear to consider blowing for the clear backpass, or indicate advantage. It would have been interesting had the Chelsea defence cleared the ball.
In this situation, I wonder if Marriner did just "wait and see" (I guess so, common sense). If the backpass was given incidentally, what further action (if any) can be taken as the GK would have appeared to have denied a goal?